If you have read any previous books on Nostradamus you find such things written in interpretation:



This is Nostradamus getting his crystal ball cloudy. He is obviously seeing the past, instead of the future. The events he is detailing in this quatrain happened between 1100 and 1200 AD, before Nostradamus was born.



This quatrain is one of Nostradamus' "split personality" visions. The first two lines are in reference to (some event) in the 19th Century, while the last two lines are referring to (some event), which happened in the 18th Century.



Everything about this quatrain is uncanny and three of the lines tell strong details of (some event) exactly as they happened; but, this other detail seems to be wishful thinking, as that event never happened.



This quatrain is too general to make any sense of.



This quatrain tells of a clandestine affair between the Queen of Spain and a Duke, which became a scandal in the late 17th Century. The affair led to nothing important and the event bears no consequence on any subsequent history, because this affair happened.



It has been interpretations of this nature that do nothing to promote any reason to believe Nostradamus wrote anything of importance, regardless of whatever system he may or may not have used to predict a future. For every quatrain that promotes a sense of accuracy, even a high degree of accuracy, the interpretations like what I have listed show that Nostradamus was a man, using some systems of man (like astrology or magic or both) to glimpse images of a random future; and, nobody believes that is truly possible. It leads one to look at all of the flaws mankind has generated in efforts to accurately predict the future. Anything promoted as accurate can then only be chance; and the numbers (statistics) prove that to be the case. However, all past interpreters of Nostradamus have been grossly in error.



The Letter of Preface that Nostradamus wrote, which appeared with the first publication of seven Centuries in 1555, states clearly that: 1.) Nostradamus did not calculate or use magic to write The Prophecies; 2.) Nostradamus encountered the spirit of Jesus Christ (as if solid and real - in person), who showed Nostradamus a future that was very distant from 1555; 3.) Jesus Christ instructed Nostradamus what to write and how to write it, such that a thoroughly consistent system is embedded in the writing style, which makes everything understandable.



From these basic instructions we find that no man produced The Prophecies. Thus, the title is aptly chosen, as "prophecy" is defined as: a. An inspired utterance of a prophet, viewed as a revelation of divine will; b. A prediction of the future, made under divine inspiration; c. Such an inspired message or prediction transmitted orally or in writing. This means that the source is God, as Jesus Christ, and can in no way have any errors or mistakes in any word, line or quatrain.



To ensure that we realized the divine source, Nostradamus wrote that before the time would come, when the embedded systems would be realized and make clear understanding possible (now - from what I have been allowed to know), previous interpretations of the verses would conclude that they were half-true or untrue. This is how the examples I began with conclude. However, Nostradamus wrote that after this time of understanding would come (again, now), all would be seen as infallibly written. There is nothing written without meaning; and anything previously stated about Nostradamus or some of his verses, implying or concluding that he or they were less than completely accurate are wrong.



Now, let me make this clear, as some believe the statement I posted in another forum made it seem that all would be found infallibly written at the end of the world, when a message from God would have no bearing on the future. That is simpleton mentality and not what I just stated. When the time for understanding comes (and it has now come) the world will not have ended; but, a significant portion of the past will have been completed. That is how the measure of infallibility can be obtained.



The Letter of Preface also gives the theme for the past, which will be the cause for the future. That past theme has already be fulfilled. There are quatrains that tell of that theme's past development, which has taken us from 1650 to now. The complete accuracy of those quatrains that tell of this past history, in minute detail, prove the infallibility of the past; but, beyond that, it makes the present dangers obviously apparent, with the future's development no longer a wild prediction hundreds of years away, but highly probable and predictable on man's standards, without the need for prophecy to be the source. The fact that Prophecy confirms those predictions makes the times we are presently in take on a new urgency. We no longer can write off predictions of a bad future as possible not correct, due to the source being fallible man. Instead, we have fallible man saying this is possible, while a divine Prophecy saying it is written.



The key is how we approach this future. We have to do a Dirty Harry and ask ourselves, "Do I feel lucky and do nothing to change the path we are headed?" Or, do we believe (belief is self-proven - not belief in me) a Prophecy has been unlocked to warn us, so we can change and avert the future that has been written? I look forward to hearing how you would answer this dilema.



Sincerely,



Robert Tippett